Incomplete?
In the following section, Mohamed Ghounem attempts to demonstrate that both the Holy Bible and the Quran affirm that the Bible has been tampered with. Yet, we will shortly demonstrate that Ghounem has twisted both scriptures in order to arrive at his conclusions. He cuts passages in mid-sentence and often neglects to read the verses before and after a specific passage that totally negates the conclusion he seeks to demonstrate.
Ghounem also assumes certain things and then proceeds to read these assumptions into the passages that are cited in his article. Yet, upon closer examination the passages that are cited nowhere suggest that the biblical text has been corrupted. At best, all these passages prove is that certain individuals deliberately perverted the meaning of the text or withheld certain information that is present in the Holy Bible. The passages never claim that the text has been tampered with.
Before proceeding into the specific arguments, we suggest that the reader first read the following article which demonstrates that both the Quran and the early Muslim traditions affirm the purity and preservation of the biblical text
The previous Scriptures were meant for a limited period for a group of humans who were limited in knowledge. That is why they were not protected from corruption, they were a stepping stone for the more advanced timeless Revelation.
Response:
Ghounem makes the erroneous assumption that a book that was intended for a specific period of time implies that it would not be protected from textual corruption. This is simply erroneous. The conclusion does not follow from his premise since you can have commands/scriptures that were intended for a specific time period without this necessarily implying corruption to the Holy Bible.
Secondly, Ghounem has already assumed the conclusion he seeks to prove, namely that the Holy Bible has been corrupted. Yet, it is precisely this assumption that leads Ghounem to twist passages from both the Holy Bible and the Quran in order to arrive at his conclusion.
People in the days of Jesus were not ready to hear about wonders and miracles of the Universe (John 16:12), so they were given a temporary Gospel teaching love, works, and faith.
Response:
First, the passage, which Ghounem alludes to, has nothing to do with "wonders and miracles of the Universe." The passage is referring to Jesus' teaching as well as future revelation that was to be given by the Holy Spirit concerning the life, work and mission of Jesus Christ and how this effects the Church. This revelation also entails the future return of Christ in visible glory at the consummation of the age.
Second, the Gospel of Jesus Christ is not temporary but eternal, a point clearly taught in Scripture:
"Then I saw another angel flying in midair, and he had THE ETERNAL GOSPEL to proclaim to those who live on the earth-to every nation, tribe, language and people." Revelation 14:6
Christ personally affirms that the Law and Prophets will remain until all is fulfilled:
"Do not think that I have come to abolish the Law or the Prophets; I have not come to abolish them but to fulfill them. I tell you the truth, until heaven and earth disappear, not the smallest letter, not the least stroke of a pen, will by any means disappear from the Law until everything is accomplished." Matthew 5:17-18
Since there are many prophecies that will only be fulfilled at Christ's return, the Law/Prophets are still in effect and are to be read and cherished. This does not imply that every command in the Old Testament is binding upon Christians today, but rather the Law/Prophets provide examples from which Christians are to learn from:
"For everything that was written in the past was written to teach us, so that through endurance and the encouragement of the Scriptures we might have hope." Romans 15:4
"Do I say this merely from a human point of view? Doesn't the Law say the same thing? For it is written in the Law of Moses: Do not muzzle an ox while it is treading out the grain.' Is it about oxen that God is concerned? Surely he says this for us, doesn't he? Yes, this was written for us, because when the plowman plows and the thresher threshes, they ought to do so in the hope of sharing in the harvest." 1 Corinthians 9:8-10
"For I do not want you to be ignorant of the fact, brothers, that our forefathers were all under the cloud and that they all passed through the sea. They were all baptized into Moses in the cloud and in the sea. They all ate the same spiritual food and drank the same spiritual drink; for they drank from the spiritual rock that accompanied them, and that rock was Christ. Nevertheless, God was not pleased with most of them; their bodies were scattered over the desert. Now these things occurred as examples to keep us from setting our hearts on evil things as they did. Do not be idolaters, as some of them were; as it is written: The people sat down to eat and drink and got up to indulge in pagan revelry.' We should not commit sexual immorality, as some of them did--and in one day twenty-three thousand of them died. We should not test the Lord, as some of them did--and were killed by snakkes. And do not grumble, as some of them did--and were killed by the destroying angel. These things happened to them as examples and were written down as warnings for us, on whom the fulfillment of the ages has come." 1 Corinthians 10:1-11
Finally, the Lord also affirmed that his words were eternal in duration:
"Heaven and earth will pass away, but my words will never pass away." Matthew 24:35
This Gospel underwent distortion, addition and omission, because of the fact that it was not intended to be a permanent complete Guidance, hence it was not protected by God. Then in the year 632 AD, God sent down the Final Testament, the Holy Qur'an.
Response:
The only thing that has been distorted is not the Gospel but Ghounem's misquotations of Scripture in order to arrive at biblical corruption. Furthermore, Ghounem assumes that 1) God has not committed himself to preserving the Holy Bible and the Gospel of Jesus Christ and 2) that the Quran is the word of God. Yet, Ghounem fails to give proof for either assumption, as we shall shortly demonstrate.
Both the Bible and Quran confirm that all scripture prior to the Quran was meant to be for a set time, was incomplete, and was tampered with by man as described in these following verses:
Response:
Correction. It is neither the Holy Bible nor the Quran that teaches biblical corruption, but Ghounem's assumptions and deliberate twisting of both books that leads him to this conclusion.
"Some of the Jews pervert words from their meanings." [Quran 4:46]
"So woe to those who write the Book with their hands, and then say, 'This is from Allah,' that they may sell it for a little price. So woe to them for what their hands have written, and woe to them for their earnings." [Quran 2:79]
"Say, who sent down the Book that Mosses brought as a light and a guidance to people? You put it into sheets of paper showing some of them and concealing much." [Quran 6:91]
"And there is a group among them who twist their tongues with the Book, that you may think it is a part of the Book, but it is not part of the Book. And they say 'It is from Allah, 'yet it is not from Allah, and they tell a lie against Allah and they know it. It is not for any human being to whom Allah has given the Book, the Wisdom and the Prophethood to say to men worship me instead of Allah," [Quran 3:78-70]
"People of the Book! Our Messenger has come to you, making clear to you many things you have been concealing of the Book and forgive you much. A light has come to you from Allah and a glorious Book, with which He will guide whoever follows His pleasure in the way of peace, and brings them forth from darkness into the light by His will." [Quran 5:15-16].
Response:
Not one single passage just cited even comes close in claiming that the text of the Holy Bible has been corrupted. All these passages simply assert that the Jews and Christians had either concealed information within their books, or deliberately misinterpreted it, i.e. "twist it with their tongues."
Interestingly, one passage even affirms that the Jews had the revelation of Moses intact:
"Say, who sent down the Book that Moses brought as a light and a guidance to people? YOU PUT IT INTO SHEETS OF PAPER showing some of them and concealing much." S. 6:91
Hence, the Jews had the Book of Moses yet concealed much of what was written in it by refusing to show it to others. The Quran never once claims that the revelation given to the prophets before Muhammad had been corrupted. This is not just the opinion of Christians, but of some of the Sahabah such as Ibn Abbas:
"From Kitaab (the book of) Al-Tawheed, Baab (chapter) Qawlu Allah Ta'ala, Bal Huwa Qur'aanun Majeed, fi lawhin Mahfooth - Or, the Book of the Oneness of God, the Chapter of Surat Al-Borooj (no. 85), Verses 21, 22 which says, `Nay this is a Glorious Qur'an, (Inscribed) in a Tablet Preserved': `They corrupt the word' means `THEY ALTER OR CHANGE ITS MEANING,' YET NO ONE IS ABLE TO CHANGE EVEN A SINGLE WORD FROM ANY BOOK OF GOD. THE MEANING IS THAT THEY INTERPRET THE WORD WRONGLY.'" (Please read this for more information)
In fact, applying Ghounem's logic this would also prove that the Jews also corrupted the text of the Quran:
"Can you (O men of faith) still earnestly desire that they (the Jews) will believe in you? And verily a party (fariq) among them hear the Word of God, then they pervert it knowingly after they have understood it. And when they meet the believers they say, `We believe,' but when they meet each other in private they say, `Why do you tell them what God has revealed to you (in the Torah), that they may engage you in argument about it before their God? What do you not understand?' Do they not know that God knows what they conceal and what they make public?" S. 2:75-77
"Seest thou not those unto whom a portion of the Scripture hath been given, how they purchase error, and seek to make you (Muslims) err from the right way? Allah knoweth best (who are) your enemies. Allah is sufficient as a Guardian, and Allah is sufficient as a Supporter. Some of those who are Jews change words from their context and say: 'We hear and disobey; hear thou as one who heareth not' and 'Listen to us!' distorting with their tongues and slandering religion. If they had said: 'We hear and we obey: hear thou, and look at us' it had been better for them, and more upright. But Allah hath cursed them for their disbelief, so they believe not, save a few. O ye unto whom the Scripture hath been given! Believe in what We have revealed confirming that which ye possess, before We destroy countenances so as to confound them, or curse them as We cursed the Sabbath-breakers (of old time). The commandment of Allah is always executed." S. 4:44-47
Yusuf Ali comments on S. 4:44-47:
" A trick of the Jews was to twist words and expressions, so as to ridicule the most solemn teachings of the Faith. Where they should have said, 'We hear and we obey,' they said aloud, 'We hear,' and whispered, 'We disobey.' Where they should have said respectfully, 'We hear,' they added in a whisper, 'What is not heard,' by way of ridicule. Where they claimed the attention of the Teacher, they used an ambiguous word apparently harmless, but their intention disrespectful." (Ali, The Holy Qur'an, p. 194, f. 565)
And,
Does the fact that the Jews perverted the message of the Quran by their tongues mean that they corrupted the text of the Quran as well? This is what we would be forced to conclude if Ghounem's logic were consistently applied to these verses.
Finally, Ghounem has misquoted one passage by wrenching it out of its immediate context:
"So woe to those who write the Book with their hands, and then say, 'This is from Allah,' that they may sell it for a little price. So woe to them for what their hands have written, and woe to them for their earnings." [Quran 2:79]
Now let us see what happens when the passage is read with the verse that immediately precedes it:
"Among them are unlettered folk who know the Scripture not except from hearsay. THEY BUT GUESS." S. 2:78
Once the passage is read in context, we discover that it is not speaking of Jews and Christians corrupting their Holy Book, but rather unlettered Jews who were ignorant of the content of scriptures and falsified revelation for gain. Yet, the Quran clearly speaks of learned Jews and Christians who knew scripture and would not sell it for gain:
"And there are, certainly, among the People of the Book, those who believe in God, and that which has been revealed to you, in that which has been revealed to them, bowing in humility to God. They will not sell the signs of God for miserable gain. For them is a reward with their Lord, and God is swift in account." S. 3:199
"NOT ALL OF THEM ARE ALIKE. Some of the People of the Book are an upright people. They recite the signs (or verses) of God in the night season and they bow down worshipping. They believe in God and the last day. They command what is just, and forbid what is wrong and they hasten in good works, and they are of the righteous." S. 3:113-114
Also in the Gospel, Jesus states that his message is incomplete;
"I have yet many things to say unto you, but ye cannot bear them now." (John 16:12)
Response:
Let us see how Ghounem has deliberately twisted this passage, wrenching it from its immediate context:
"I have much more to say to you, more than you can now bear. But when he, the Spirit of truth, comes, he will guide you into all truth. He will not speak on his own; he will speak only what he hears, and he will tell you what is yet to come. He will bring glory to me by taking from what is mine and making it known to you. All that belongs to the Father is mine. That is why I said the Spirit will take from what is mine and make it known to you." John 16:12-15
And,
"And I will ask the Father, and he will give you another Counselor to be with you forever- the Spirit of truth. The world cannot accept him, because it neither sees him nor knows him. But you know him, for he lives with you and will be in you But the Counselor, the Holy Spirit, whom the Father will send in my name, will teach you all things and will remind you of everything I have said to you." John 14:16-17, 26
Jesus was telling the disciples that they were unable to understand the significance of Christ's teachings until they had been immersed with the Holy Spirit that was to descend upon them shortly thereafter. From there, the Holy Spirit would proceed to illuminate the disciples with wisdom and understanding in order to grasp the meaning of Jesus' teachings. Here are some examples from the Gospel of John on the illumination that took place after Jesus' resurrection and the Spirit's descent upon them:
"Jesus answered them, 'Destroy this temple, and I will raise it again in three days.' The Jews replied, 'It has taken forty-six years to build this temple, and you are going to raise it in three days?' But the temple he had spoken of was his body. After he was raised from the dead, his disciples recalled what he had said. Then they believed the Scripture and the words that Jesus had spoken." John 2:19-22
"Early on the first day of the week, while it was still dark, Mary Magdalene went to the tomb and saw that the stone had been removed from the entrance. So she came running to Simon Peter and the other disciple, the one Jesus loved, and said, 'They have taken the Lord out of the tomb, and we don't know where they have put him!' So Peter and the other disciple started for the tomb. Both were running, but the other disciple outran Peter and reached the tomb first. He bent over and looked in at the strips of linen lying there but did not go in. Then Simon Peter, who was behind him, arrived and went into the tomb. He saw the strips of linen lying there, as well as the burial cloth that had been around Jesus' head. The cloth was folded up by itself, separate from the linen. Finally the other disciple, who had reached the tomb first, also went inside. He saw and believed. (They still did not understand from Scripture that Jesus had to rise from the dead.)" John 20:1-9
The Apostle Paul further elaborates on this point:
"This is what we speak, not in words taught us by human wisdom but in words taught by the Spirit, expressing spiritual truths in spiritual words. The man without the Spirit does not accept the things that come from the Spirit of God, for they are foolishness to him, and he cannot understand them, because they are spiritually discerned. The spiritual man makes judgments about all things, but he himself is not subject to any man's judgment:" 1 Corinthians 2:13-15
Hence, we again see Ghounem's presuppositions at work, reading into the text things not stated. Furthermore, this also demonstrates Ghounem's willingness to twist scriptures from their context, often stopping in mid-sentence in order to give an impression other than the one intended by the authors of holy Scripture.
Furthermore, even the Bible [Revised Standard Version] itself admits it has various distortions;
"How can you say, 'We are wise, and the law of the LORD is with us'? But, behold, the false pen of the scribes has made it into a lie." (Jeremiah 8:8)
Response:
The following is adapted and modified from my response to Shabir Ally regarding this very same verse that Ghounem appeals to:
First, Shabir puts words into the mouth of the prophet Jeremiah since he never states that the Torah was corrupt. This is what he actually did say:
"How can you say, 'we are wise, for we have the law of the LORD,' when actually the lying pen of the scribes has handled it falsely?" Jeremiah 8:8
The accusation is that the scribes have falsified the Torah by their lying pens. Shabir presupposes that the manner in which the Law was falsified is by corrupting the text. Shabir assumes that this is the only possible meaning since he is convinced, as a Muslim, that the Holy Bible is no longer in its true pristine form.
But is this what Jeremiah meant? Did his hearers understand him to mean that the text of the Torah had been corrupted? Did the prophets after him agree that the Torah had been corrupted? In order to answer these questions we must look to Jeremiah and to the Holy Bible as a whole to see what indeed did Jeremiah mean.
"Say to them, 'This is what the LORD says: If you do not listen to me and follow MY LAW, which I have set before you, and if you do not listen to the words of my servants the prophets, whom I have sent to you again and again (though you have not listened) then I will make this house like Shiloh and this city an object of cursing among all the nations of the earth.'" Jeremiah 26:4-6
How could Israel follow the Law, i.e. the Torah, if it had been corrupted? This presupposes that the Torah was uncorrupt and available during the time of Jeremiah. Furthermore, since Jeremiah wrote Jeremiah 8:8 he would know best the meaning of the passage in question. Clearly, we see Jeremiah appealing to the availability of the Law in Jeremiah 26:4-6 implying that he did not believe that the scribes had corrupted the text.
The prophet Daniel writes:
"In the first year of Darius son of Xerxes (a Mede by descent), who was made ruler over the Babylonian kingdom- in the first year of his reign, I, Daniel, understood from the Scriptures, according to the word of the LORD given to Jeremiah the prophet, that the desolation of Jerusalem would last seventy years. So I turned to the LORD and pleaded with him in prayer and petition, in fasting, and in sackcloth and ashes." Daniel 9:1-3
Daniel is reading Jeremiah 25:11, 12 and 29:10 where God predicts that Israel would be taken into captivity to Babylon for 70 years. After reading this, Daniel continues to pray and says:
"Therefore the curses and sworn judgments WRITTEN IN THE LAW OF MOSES, the servant of God, have been poured out on us, because we have sinned against you. You have fulfilled the words spoken against us and against our rulers by bringing upon us great disaster. Under the whole heaven nothing has ever been done like what has been done to Jerusalem. JUST AS IT IS WRITTEN IN THE LAW OF MOSES, all this disaster has come upon us, yet we have not sought the favor of the LORD our God by turning from our sins and giving attention to your truth." Daniel 9:11b-13
In order for Daniel to appeal to what was written in the Law of Moses presupposes that an uncorrupt Torah was available during the time of Daniel. Furthermore, after having read Jeremiah Daniel never concludes that the Torah had been corrupted, put appeals to it as the inspired word of God. This would be a strange conclusion for Daniel to come to if Jeremiah 8:8 indeed meant that the text of the Torah had been corrupted during Jeremiah's time.
"They read from the BOOK OF THE LAW OF GOD, making it clear and giving the meaning so that the people could understand what was being read...On the second day... they gathered around Ezra the scribe to give attention to the words of the Law. They found written in THE LAW, which the LORD had commanded THROUGH MOSES... Day after day, from the first day to the last, Ezra read from THE BOOK OF THE LAW OF GOD..." Nehemiah 8:13-14, 18
This occurred approximately 430 B.C. nearly 180 years after Jeremiah's temple address which took place in 609 or 608 B.C. (see Jeremiah 26:1). Again, in order for Ezra the scribe to be able to both read from the Law of Moses and expound it presupposes that a true, uncorrupt copy of the Torah was available at that time.
Finally, the Lord Jesus and his followers quoted from the Torah as we know it today and never assumed that it was corrupt. (cf. Matthew 4:4,7,10; 22:31-32; 1 Timothy 5:18) In fact, Jesus claimed that the Torah as it exists would not pass away until all was fulfilled:
"I tell you the truth, until heaven and earth disappear, not the smallest letter, not the least stroke of a pen, will by any means disappear from the Law until everything is accomplished." Matthew 5:18
If Jeremiah 8:8 does not mean that the text of the Torah had been corrupted what did Jeremiah mean by the statement that the lying pens of the scribes have falsified it? Presumably, Jeremiah could have been referring to the written commentary of the scribes whereby they falsely interpreted the Law of God, leading people astray by their traditions. A similar situation arose between Jesus and the scribes and Pharisees:
"Then some Pharisees and teachers of the law came to Jesus from Jerusalem and asked, 'Why do your disciples break the tradition of the elders? They don't wash their hands before they eat!' Jesus replied, 'And why do you break the command of God for the sake of your tradition?... Thus you nullify the word of God for the sake of your tradition. You hypocrites! Isaiah was right when he prophesied about you: 'these people honor me with their lips, but their hearts are far from me. They worship me in vain; their teachings are but rules taught by men.'" Matthew 15:1-3, 6b-9
Jeremiah could have been rebuking the scribes for traditions that was leading the people astray and to rejecting the word of God. This can be seen from the passage that immediately follows:
"The wise will be put to shame; they will be dismayed and trapped. Since they have rejected the word of the LORD, what kind of wisdom do they have." Jeremiah 8:9 (For more information, please read this article)
So much for the argument from Jeremiah 8:8.
"Behold, I am against the prophets, says the LORD, who use their tongues and say, 'Says the LORD.' (Jeremiah 23:31)
"But 'the burden of the LORD' you shall mention no more, for the burden is every man's own word, and you pervert the words of the living God, the LORD of hosts, our God." (Jeremiah 23:36)
"And the LORD said to me: 'The prophets are prophesying lies in my name; I did not send them, nor did I command them or speak to them. They are prophesying to you a lying vision, worthless divination, and the deceit of their own minds.'" (Jeremiah 14:14)
Response:
Again, these passages do not speak a word about textual corruption. Rather, it simply refers to the perversion of God's word by "their tongues." (Cf. Jer. 23:31) So far, Ghounem has picked at straws.
Even Jesus admits the Scribes omitted things from the Bible;
Response:
Again, where does Jesus even hint at textual corruption in the verse just cited? Had Ghounem read Matthew carefully, he would have found Jesus quoting the Old Testament as the inspired Word of God:
"Then some Pharisees and teachers of the law came to Jesus from Jerusalem and asked, 'Why do your disciples break the tradition of the elders? They don't wash their hands before they eat!' Jesus replied, 'And why do you break the command of God for the sake of your tradition? FOR GOD SAID, "Honor your father and mother' and `Anyone who curses his father or mother must be put to death." But you say that if a man says to his father or mother, "Whatever help you might otherwise have received from me is a gift devoted to God," he is not to "honor his father " with it. Thus you nullify THE WORD OF GOD for the sake of your tradition. You hypocrites! Isaiah was right when he prophesied about you: "These people honor me with their lips, but their hearts are far from me. They worship me in vain; their teachings are but rules taught by men."'" Matthew 15:1-9
Jesus alludes to and quotes Exodus 20:12, Deuteronomy 5:16, Exodus 21:17, Leviticus 20:9 and Isaiah 29:13 as the authoritative word of God. Again,
"Jesus replied, 'You are in error BECAUSE YOU DO NOT KNOW THE SCRIPTURES OR THE POWER OF GOD. At the resurrection people will neither marry nor be given in marriage; they will be like the angels in heaven. But about the resurrection of the dead- have you not read WHAT GOD SAID TO YOU, "I am the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob"? He is not the God of the dead but of the living.'" Matthew 22:29-32
In this passage, Jesus cites Exodus 3:6 as God's Word. Once more,
Jesus cites Deuteronomy 8:3, 6:16 and 6:13 with authority in combating the Devil. In fact, Satan himself quotes Psalm 91:11-12 as authoritative! These few examples sufficiently demonstrate that the Lord Jesus viewed the Old Testament of his day, which is virtually identical to what we have in our possession now, as the inspired word of God. Not once did he ever assume that the scribes had corrupted the text of the OT.
Paul even states the Gospel is unclear and incomplete;
"And on my behalf, that utterance may be given unto me in opening my mouth, to make known with boldness the mystery of the gospel," (Ephesians 6:19)
"But when that which is perfect is come, then that which is in part shall be done away." 1 Corinthians 13:10
Response:
Let us read Paul in context and see how Ghounem has again deceptively twisted the Apostle's writings:
"For this reason I, Paul, the prisoner of Christ Jesus for the sake of you Gentiles- Surely you have heard about the administration of God's grace that was given to me for you, that is, THE MYSTERY MADE KNOWN TO ME BY REVELATION, as I have already written briefly. In reading this, then, you will be able to understand my insight into the mystery of Christ, which was not made known to men in other generations AS IT HAS NOW BEEN REVEALED BY THE SPIRIT TO GOD'S HOLY APOSTLES AND PROPHETS. This mystery IS that through the gospel the Gentiles are heirs together with Israel, members together of one body, and sharers together in the promise in Christ Jesus. I became a servant of this gospel by the gift of God's grace given me through the working of his power. Although I am less than the least of all God's people, this grace was given me: to preach to the Gentiles the unsearchable riches of Christ, AND TO MAKE PLAIN TO EVERYONE THE ADMINISTRATION OF THIS MYSTERY, WHICH FOR AGES WAS KEPT HIDDEN IN GOD, who created all things. HIS INTENT WAS THAT NOW, THROUGH THE CHURCH, THE MANIFOLD WISDOM OF GOD SHOULD BE MADE KNOWN TO THE RULERS AND AUTHORITIES IN THE HEAVENLY REALMS, according to his eternal purpose which he accomplished in Christ Jesus our Lord. Ephesians 3:1-11
Since Paul clearly states that God's mystery, which was kept hidden for all those ages, had been revealed to the evangelist to proclaim through the Church, how could Ghounem twist Ephesians 6:19 to arrive at his conclusion that the Holy Bible is incomplete? Furthermore, seeing that Ghounem had read Ephesians why did he deliberately omit Ephesians 3:1-11 which clearly explains that the mystery Paul was speaking of had been made known through the Apostles and revealed to the Church of Jesus Christ?
"Love never fails. But where there are prophecies, they will cease; where there are tongues, they will be stilled; where there is knowledge, it will pass away. FOR WE KNOW IN PART AND WE PROPHESY IN PART, BUT WHEN PERFECTION COMES, THE IMPERFECT DISAPPEARS. When I was a child, I talked like a child, I thought like a child, I reasoned like a child. When I became a man, I put childish ways behind me. Now we see but a poor reflection as in a mirror; THEN WE SHALL SEE FACE TO FACE. Now I know in part; THEN I SHALL HALL KNOW FULLY, EVEN AS I AM FULLY KNOWN." 1 Corinthians 13:8-12
Paul is not even speaking of the sufficiency of scripture in this passage. What Paul is speaking of is the believer's imperfect understanding and intimate knowledge of the person of Christ. Due to our human limitations, we have an incomplete knowledge of Christ, having but a dim view of his character and nature. Yet, when he who is perfect arrives we will no longer have an imperfect intimate knowledge of him, but experience the fullness of his glory and love:
"Dear friends, now we are children of God, and what we will be has not yet been made known. But we know that when he appears, we shall be like him, for we shall see him as he is." 1 John 3:2
That this is the point Paul was making becomes evident in light of the fact that the Apostle speaks of the gifts of the Holy Spirit ceasing when the perfect arrives. The Apostle tells us when this will occur:
"Therefore you do not lack any spiritual gift as you eagerly wait for our Lord Jesus Christ to be revealed." 1 Corinthians 1:7
Paul implicitly affirms that the spiritual gifts are to remain until our Lord Jesus Christ returns. Hence, it is Jesus who Paul refers to as that perfection that is to come in 1 Corinthians 13:8. It has absolutely nothing to do with the sufficiency of Scripture, especially in light of the fact that elsewhere Paul affirms the sufficiency of the scriptures:
"and how from infancy you have known the holy Scriptures, which are able to make you wise for salvation through faith in Christ Jesus. All Scripture is God-breathed and is useful for teaching, rebuking, correcting and training in righteousness, so that the man of God may be thoroughly equipped for every good work." 2 Timothy 3:15-17
Paul is not limiting inspiration to the OT text, since elsewhere to Timothy he includes Luke as part of God-breathed revelation:
"For the Scripture says, 'Do not muzzle the ox while it is treading out the grain,' and 'The worker deserves his wages.'" 1 Timothy 5:18
Paul mentions Deuteronomy 25:4 along with Luke 10:7, classifying both on the same level of authority as inspired Scripture:
"Stay in that house, eating and drinking whatever they give you, for the worker deserves his wages. Do not move around from house to house." Luke 10:7
In light of the preceding factors, none of Ghounem's points stand up to sound scriptural exegesis.
In conclusion, whether you are a Christian or a Muslim, it is clear from both Scriptures that the Bible is unreliable and that the Perfect Quran is the True Guidance for us.
Peace
Response:
In reality, the only thing we have come to conclude is that Ghounem does not know the Holy Bible or the Quran. He misquotes both books and often twists passages in order to arrive at his faulty conclusions. This fact will become more evident as we continue to rebut the different sections of his book.
In the service of the only true God and eternal life, Jesus Christ our Lord, forever. Amen. (1 John 5:20)
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